Something doesn't makes sense here. Obviously you have means and are well off enough that you could pay off your mortgage at any time. However, why did you choose to the tack on yet another 30 years to your mortgage for a 42 year term for your refi(s)? Why didn't you refinance and choose a term to keep the original amortization schedule from 22 years ago? If you got $1.5M in the market, does that $237 per month (or whatever amount) lower payment (because you pushed the final payment date back) really matter that much? My argument was about the ridiculousness of the 30-year term, mentioning how in the 20s before the New Deal with associated gov't structures, mortgage terms were three to five years. Are you saying that you would prefer a society where the 30 year mortgage is standard along with the side effects of such as inflated asset prices?